Question: Mandal Commission is officially known by which of the following names?
Answer: Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission
Question: Consider the following with reference to the immunity and privileges enjoyed by the Governor:
1. During his/her term of office, he/she is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his/her personal acts.
2. Civil proceedings cannot be instituted against the Governor during his/her term of office in respect of his/her personal acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 only
Question: With reference to the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements :
1. The members of the Rajya Sabha itself elect the Deputy Chairman.
2. The Deputy Chairman is subordinate to the Chairman.
3. The Deputy Chairman has the same power as the Chairman when presiding over the sitting of the House.
4. Like the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman, while presiding over the House, can only exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1, 3 and 4 only
Question: Which of the following languages is NOT included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Answer: English
Question: With reference to the writ of prohibition, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It can be issued only against judicial and quasi judicial authorities.
2. While the writ of prohibition is preventive in nature, writ of certiorari is both preventive as well as curative.
3. It can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Answer: 1 and 2 Only
Question: With reference to the parts of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. The original text of the Indian Constitution consisted of 22 parts.
2. Part IVA was added later to the Indian Constitution through the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.
Answer: 1 only
Question: Consider the following statements regarding conditions for a repoll in elections:
1. A repoll can be ordered if there is evidence of tampering with the electoral roll or missing documents essential for the polling process.
2. The misplacement of the register of voters at a booth is sufficient grounds for the Election Commission to declare the polling at that booth void and order a repoll.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: Both 1 and 2
Question: Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Parliament of India?
Answer: The President declares the House adjourned sine die.
Question: With reference to Inter-State Council consider the following statements:
1. Inter state Council is constituted at the discretion of the President of India.
2. It is constituted for investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States, have a common interest.
3. Union Home Minister is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Inter state Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 and 2 only
Question: Which part of the Constitution of India deal with promotion of international peace and security?
Answer: Directive Principles of State Policy
Question: With reference to states reorganization in India, arrange the following mentioned States/Union Territories (UTs) in the chronological order of their formation:
1. Sikkim
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Manipur
4. Mizoram
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer: 2-3-1-4
Question: Which of the following subjects are mentioned in the union list of the seventh schedule of the Indian constitution?
1. Defence
2. Highways
3. Police
4. Trade unions
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
Answer: 1 and 2 only
Question: Which of the following feature of the Indian constitution is borrowed from the Irish constitution?
Answer: Directive Principles of State Policy and Method of election of President
Question: What is meant by special majority in state legislatures?
Answer: Two-thirds of the members present and voting must vote yes, and this number must also be a majority of the total strength of the membership of that House.
Question: Which of the following functions are not performed by the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes?
Answer: The caste of any area can be declared as a Scheduled Tribe in consultation with the Governor.
Question: Arrange the following functions performed by the Constituent Assembly in chronological order.
1. Adoption of National Flag.
2. Election of Dr Rajendra Prasad as the President of the Assembly.
3. Adoption of Objective Resolution.
4. Ratification of India’s membership of the Commonwealth.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Answer: 2-3-1-4
Question: Which of the following is/are correct related to the procedure of constitutional amendments?
1. The Idea of amending the constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of South Africa.
2. The procedure for amendment is detailed under Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution.
3. Article 368 in itself has been amended by the Parliament through 24th Amendment Act, 1971, and the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Find the correct answer from the code given below.
Answer: 1, 2, and 3
Question: Which one of the following is most appropriate regarding the resignation of the President of India?
Answer: The resignation letter is addressed to the Vice President of India, who must communicate with the Speaker of Lok Sabha
Question: Who decides on the disqualification of the members of the Legislative Assembly under 10th schedule?
Answer: Speaker of legislative assembly
Question: With reference to the State finance commission, Consider the following statements:
1. The governor of the state constitutes a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the panchayats.
2. The constitution provides for the composition of the commission, and the manner of their selection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 only
Question: Which of the following rights has been inferred as fundamental rights under article 21?
1. Right to livelihood
2. Right to privacy
3. Right to reputation
4. Right to sustainable development
5. Right to travel abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4,and 5
Question: Which of the following is not correct about Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016?
Answer: The Union government has to allot 10% seats in its educational institutions for persons with disabilities.
Question: Consider the following pairs:
S.No
Bill
Explanation
1.
Original Bills
Bills embodying new proposals, ideas or policies
2.
Consolidating Bills
Bills which seek to consolidate existing laws on a particular subject
3.
Amending Bills
Bills which seek to modify, amend or revise the existing Acts
4.
Repealing Bills
Bills seeking to repeal existing Acts
How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Answer: 1, 2 , 3 and 4
Question: Who did not participate in the first meeting of Constituent Assembly?
Answer: Muslim league
Question: With reference to the Chief Minister, consider the following statements:
1. He holds office during the pleasure of the Governor and he can be dismissed by the Governor at any time.
2. He can recommend the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly to the Governor at any time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 2 only
Question: The electoral college of the Vice-President consists of:
1. It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament of India.
2. It includes the elected members of the state legislative assemblies.
3. It also includes the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 only
Question: Which article of the Constitution places a duty on the State to “raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health”, which includes the “prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health” ?
Answer: Article 47
Question: Fundamental Duties are contained within which Article of the Constitution of India?
Answer: Article 51A
Question: Consider the following statements:
1. Supreme Court decides the disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President.
2. Supreme Court’s jurisdiction and powers with respect to matters in the State list can be enlarged by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: Both 1 and 2
Question: Consider the following statements about the language of the Courts:
1. The Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court.
2. The Governor of a State without any consent or approval of the President can authorise the use of Hindi or any other official language of the State in the proceedings of the High Court of the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 only
Question: With reference to India which of the following statement is incorrect about the term ‘Republic’ mentioned in the Preamble?
Answer: The head of the State is directly elected.
Question: The 25th constitutional amendment introduced in 1971 was related to
Answer: Curtailed the fundamental right to property.
Question: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): 31st Amendment Act enacted to Increase the number of Lok Sabha seats from 525 to 545
Reason (R): An increase in the population of India was revealed in the Census of 1971.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Question: Consider the following statements :
1. An Electronic Voting Machine is a simple electronic device used to record votes in place of ballot papers.
2. There is the possibility of invalid and doubtful votes while using EVM.
3. The first-time use of EVMs occurred in the by-election in Kerala in May 1982.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 and 3 only
Question: Consider the following statements with reference to the power of the Prime Minister in relation to Parliament.
1. Prime minister advises the President for summoning and proroguing of sessions of the Parliament.
2. Prime minister announces the policies of the government on the floor of the House.
3. Prime minister advises the President with regard to the appointment of important officials like the attorney general of India, CAG, chairman and members of UPSC, and so on.
4. Prime minister is the principal channel of communication between the President and the council of ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1, 2, 3, and 4
Question: Consider the following statements regarding the veto power of President
1. Indian President can use the pocket veto in case of ordinary bills.
2. Indian President has suspensive veto power in case of money bills.
3. Indian President does not enjoy qualified veto power.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: 1 and 3 only
Question: With reference to the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer: The Divorce comes into effect after the end of 1 month from the date of decree
Question: Recently Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Quota has been news. Consider the following statements:
1. It has been brought into force by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. It violates the Basic Structure Doctrine as it is not in line with Indra Sawhney’s Judgement.
3. It has amended Articles 15 and 16 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: 3 only
Question: Consider the following statements:
1. The Lok Adalat means ‘People’s Court’ is based on Gandhian Principles.
2. The Lok Adalat shall have the same powers as vested in a civil court under the Code of civil procedure in some cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: Both 1 and 2
Question: Consider the following statements regarding Diplomatic Passports in India:
1. Diplomatic Passports in India are issued under the Passports Act, of 1967.
2. They are maroon in color and are given to high-ranking officials of the state and central government on international duty.
3. Holders of Diplomatic Passports in India are exempt from visa requirements in all foreign countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 and 2 only
Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Financial bills are those bills that deal with fiscal matters.
2. All financial bills are money bills.
3. A certification of the Speaker is required when a money bill is transmitted to Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 only
Question: With reference to fundamental rights, consider the following statements:
1. Some of them are available to citizens only.
2. All of them are available against the arbitrary law of the legislature.
3. Some of them are available against the action of private individuals.
4. All of them are sacrosanct in nature.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: 1, 2 and 3 only
Question: Recently Article 371F is in news, it is related to which of the following states?
Answer: Sikkim
Question: Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.
List – I
List – II
(a)
Formation of Gram Panchayat
i)
Article 50
(b)
Uniform Civil Code
ii)
Article 48
(c)
Agriculture and Animal Husbandry
iii)
Article 40
(d)
Separation of Judiciary from Executive
iv)
Article 44
Answer: a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
Question: The security deposit for the election of the President is :
Answer: ₹15,000
Question: Consider the following statement regarding the National Judicial Appointment Commission(NJAC):
1. NJAC was the proposed body which would have been responsible for the recruitment, appointment, and transfer of Judges and other judicial officials in India
2. It was introduced through the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act 2014
3. It was stuck down by the Supreme Court as unconstitutional and against the Basic Structure of Constitution in 2015
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: 1 , 2 and 3
Question: What is the purpose of the anti-profiteering provisions under the Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
Answer: To ensure that businesses pass on the benefits of tax rate reductions or input tax credits to consumers.
Question: Consider the following statements on the power of the Governor to decide on the Bills:
1. Article 200 of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of the Governor with regard to assent given to bills passed by the State legislature.
2. The Governor of India enjoys absolute veto, and pocket veto but not the suspensive veto (except on money bills).
3. The Governor cannot assent to a law which endangers the constitutional position of the High Court but must reserve it for the consideration of the President.
which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct?
Answer: 2 only
Question: Which one of the following is correct about the No-Confidence Motion?
Answer: It can be moved against the entire council of ministers only.
Question: Regarding the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act ,Consider the following statements:
1. The act permits both married and unmarried women to legally terminate a pregnancy.
2. The act permits the upper gestation limit from 20 to 24 weeks for special categories of women.
3. The act totally prohibits the Termination of Pregnancy after 24 weeks.
How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
Answer: 3 Only
Question: A Retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice as a lawyer in which of the following?
Answer: High Court where he retired
Question: Which of the following are the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?
1. To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the Delimitation Commission through the Delimitation Commission Act
2. To act as a court for settling disputes related to the granting of recognition to political parties and allotment of election symbols to them.
3. To conduct the elections of the Municipal Corporations to Panchayats
Answer: 1 and 2
Question: D.K. Basu’s judgment recently seen in the news is related to
Answer: It established guidelines to protect the rights and dignity of individuals in police custody
Question: During the Proclamation of Emergency, the duration of the House of People may be extended by the Parliament for a period not exceeding __________ at a time
Answer: One year
Question: With reference to the exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. Enable the parliament to make law on a matter of state list.
2. The Rajya Sabha on its own can impeach the Vice-President of India.
3. Enforcing proclamation of emergency when Lok Sabha is dissolved.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: 1 and 3 only
Question: Consider following statements regarding India-Bangaladesh Land Boundary agreement 2015:
1. The agreement facilitated the transfer of 120 enclaves, from India to Bangladesh. Conversely, India received 51 enclaves which were in Bangladesh
2. As per this agreement India effectively lost about 10,000 acres of land
3. 100th Constitutional Amendment Act was passed to ratify this land agreement
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 2 and 3
Question: Consider the following statements
1. Territory of India includes Territories of the states and Union territories only.
2. The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first schedule of the Constitution.
3. ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Answer: 2 only
Question: Which of the following are Non- Constitutional Bodies:
1. NITI AYOG
2. Central Bureau of Investigation.(CBI)
3. State Human Rights Commission. (SHRC)
4. Central Information Commission.(CIC)
5. GST Council
6. Finance Commission
Answer: 1,2,3 & 4
Question: With reference to Anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
1. It provides that a member of a House belonging to a political party can be disqualified if he/she votes against the party whip.
2. It mandates that the presiding officer of the House has to decide a defection case within 3 months from the date on which such a petition is referred to him/her.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 only
Question: Consider the following statements:
1. Zero FIR refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered in the area where the offense is committed.
2. It can be later transferred to any police station in the country so that the investigation can begin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: Neither 1 nor 2
Question: Which of the following NOT a feature of Representative Democracy?
Answer: Direct participation of people in decision making.